I have a tight image and just lost a $150 pot so not a winning image, probably 2-3/10. I'm 275 deep.
V1 is super loose preflop, playing around 70% of his hands and always raises when first in the pot. He raises 5 for trash hands and 12-20 for PP's and broadways. He has a higher than average bluffing frequency, but doesn't go crazy. He has us covered.
V2 is a loose-passive station. He's about 230 deep.
9-handed, folds to V1 in UTG +2 who raises to 5, three people call and I raise to 15 from the SB with A♦
. I kept the raise sizing low because I wanted everyone to call, but maybe I should have raised to 20 since I'm OOP? V1 and V2 call.
Flop (45 after rake) is J♦
I bet 35, call, call. At this point I don't put either players on a set or two-pair since they are likely raising this flop with the draw-heavy board, also we're blocking the NFD.
Turn (150) is the 4
: . I bet 85, and V1 goes all in for 140 more. V2 folds. It's on me to call 140 to win 375, so I'm getting about 2.5 to 1. I would need to be good 27% of the time to make the call. I've already decided that V1 didn't flop two-pair or a set, and he is probably also raising 10x of diamonds on the flop. I don't think he has QJ-AJ, or QQ-KK because of his preflop raise sizing. I think he realizes that he doesn't have any FE with the line I've taken and the pot odds I'm getting. At this point my perception of V's range is J4, 10/4, 2/4, 4x of diamonds, maybe 10x of diamonds, and mayyybe a naked Jack. After putting this range into stove (not including a single Jack or 10x of diamonds) I am a 30/70 dog, so I have odds to call based on this range. Does this range seem reasonable? How likely is it that he's overplaying a Jack?
I call, V wins with 24o.
Here's my main problem with the hand: if V knows that I am stacking off when he makes two-pair or trips, he is getting odds to call on the flop (35 to win 300 with 5 outs.) Does this change how the hand should be played?