This was played in a Texas club game. Mandatory $25 straddle is on.
Villain is a LAG reg in this game; he's a strong winning player. He 3bets liberally. He's very aggressive and capable of running large bluffs -- he might be overbluffing in spots, but I'm not sure.
I typically play 1/3 and sometimes 5/5. This is maybe my 3rd time playing this stake. Villain knows I usually play lower stakes. Villain might think I'm nervous to play these stakes.
Villain starts with $2.5k, I cover.
Action folds to hero in the SB, and hero opens to $100 with 6♣ 5♣. Villain 3bets in BB to $275. Straddle folds. Hero calls.
Flop: T♥ 5♦ 3♣ (pot: $575)
Hero checks, Villain bets $400, Hero calls.
Turn: J♥ T♥ 5♦ 3♣ (pot: $1375)
Hero checks, Villain bets $525 (leaving himself $1300 behind), Hero folds.
My question is, how to react to the flop sizing which surprised me? It seems unlikely that we are not going to be facing multiple barrels when Villain uses this sizing. However, this is one of my best 5x and folding flop would be exploitable. Turn seems like an easy decision.
If we pick up additional equity, with a 4 or a club, can we be justified to check-raise turn all in, or would that be a mistake given the massive flop sizing?
How wide can I open from the SB in a 3-blind format? I would probably open JTo at the lower end of my range. Is that too loose? Maybe with a LAG on my left, I should tighten up?
More generally, how to combat this approach where Villain uses a puny preflop sizing, so that we enter the flop with a very wide range, and then bombs the flop for near pot? Do we just look to MDF and call flop with our best 50% of hands? Or, is this line typically underbluffed, and we should look to fold out all but our top pair or better?
Thanks for any comments.