3/5 Seattle with a max bet of $500. I am in the hijack with the effective stack of $800. The villain is in the big blind with a stack of around $1000. The villain is a complete fish. In a previous hand an hour earlier, the villain had a stack of $235 and he limped under the gun with six♣
and called a raise to $30 from me on the button. I had pocket aces. The flop was ace, seven, four rainbow. He check-called a $45 bet on the flop from me. The turn was a six to complete the rainbow. He then check-raised a $105 bet from me on the turn for his final $160. He spiked a five on the river to hit his gutshot.
On to the hand:
I have ace♦
I opened to $20 from the hijack. The button, small blind, and the villain calls from the big blind.
Flop ($80): Jack♦
Checked to me. I bet $30. The button folds. The small blind tank calls and the villain calls.
Turn ($170): Two
: The small blind checks. The big blind leads for $60. I call. The small blind tank folds.
River ($290): Queen ♣
The villain again bets $60. I raised to $325.
The villain's river bet of $60 screams like a standard blocker bet. However, was it advisable to raise on this river card with my holding if I'm persuaded that the villain's bet sizing gives away that he does not have anything more than a one-pair hand even though I block missed flush draws? I am repping a set of jacks, set of fives, set of threes, set of queens, queen-jack, or even ace/queen diamonds, king/queen diamonds with the raise.